1 Timothy 2:1-6 and All Men~
“First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers, petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all men, for kings and all who are in authority, so that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity. This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself as a ransom for all, the testimony given at the proper time.”
Does “all men” mean every individual that has ever lived, a universal application, or is there a delimiter to the term, “all men”? The first time the term, all men, occurs in this text is when Paul says to pray on behalf of all men. Can even one Christian say that he has prayed for every individual? Are we to go to the Mormon Ancestry headquarters in Temple Square and get a list of every person and pray for them? Or like the Roman Catholics, do we pray for every person that has died? It says “all men” and all means all and that's all that all means...right? Or maybe there is a delimiter. The next portion clarifies, for kings and all who are in authority. What is Paul limiting here? What are kings and those in authority?
Kings and those in authority, these are categories (kinds) of men. We see Paul use this form of speaking in the other pastoral letters, specifically, in a similar passage in Titus, chapter two. Paul speaks of older men (v.2), older women (v.3), younger women (v.4), young men (v.6), bondslaves (vv. 9,10), and rulers and authorities (3:1) the passage of chapter two climaxes at verse eleven where Paul gives the reason for the passage in verse eleven, “For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men...” We see this generic usage of the term “all men” being used quite a bit by Paul, Titus 3:2, “...to malign no one, to be peaceable, gentle, showing every consideration for all men.” and this is especially true where Luke is writing an account of Paul's commissioning in Acts 22:15, “For you will be a witness for Him to all men of what you have seen and heard.” With the non-Calvinistic interpretation of “all men” this is a false prophecy. Paul understood what was meant by this, he knew that this didn't mean that he would witness of Christ to every single individual human being on the planet, even those who were dead (all means all and that all that all means right?) Instead he would have understood this to have meant all kinds, categories, be that races, statuses, etc of men. Luke even accounts of when Paul was accused of preaching to all men everywhere in Acts 21:28.
As I noted in my article on John 3:16, “Unfortunately, we're a very individualistic culture, so we think in these terms...The New Testament comes over to us from the East, where they think in terms of community, nationality, family, your basic social corporate constructs.”
So to impose a Western North American concept upon Scripture is anachronistic. Early eastern Jews could use the term “world” or “all men” interchangeably and not mean every single individual, they thought in terms of groups. This is evident in two other of Paul's letters, Colossians 3:11, “A renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all.” and Galatians 3:28, “There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.”
So, a broad look at the contexts of Paul's usage of the term “all men” generically. A dynamic equivalent would be “mankind”.
So in the context of 1 Timothy 2, when we see such phrases as “who desires all men to be saved “ and “ Himself as a ransom for all” if we are consistent in our exegesis we see that Paul's usage of this specific term here is consistent with his usage in other passages.
The surrounding context to this letter is that the church at this time was under persecution so it would make sense that Paul is exhorting the church to pray for the kings and rulers. Even those who are using their authority to persecute the church can be saved, as Paul knew this personally.
Another issue with this passage when Arminians or non-Calvinists is that they forget the following passages. Verse 5 starts with the word “for” (γὰρ, a post positive) introducing a contingent clause, such as, “because of”, hence a connection to the previous verses which lead to a specific point from verses three and four, thus the explanation being in five and six. Verses four and five exhort Timothy to pray for kings and those in authority, why? Because there Jesus is our Savior and He is the only way, and without this knowledge, no one can be saved, hence Paul's comment, “ For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus...” bringing the discussion right into the middle of the topic of the atonement and Jesus' high priestly role as eternal intercessor, according to the order of Melchizedek priesthood (Heb. 6:20).
The nature of Jesus' intercessory prayer is limited in its nature. Just notice Jesus' own comments of his high priestly intercessory prayer as recorded in John 17:9-12,
"I ask on their behalf; I do not ask on behalf of the world, but of those whom You have given Me; for they are Yours; and all things that are Mine are Yours, and Yours are Mine; and I have been glorified in them. 'I am no longer in the world; and yet they themselves are in the world, and I come to You Holy Father, keep them in Your name, the name which You have given Me, that they may be one even as We are. 'While I was with them, I was keeping them in Your name which You have given Me; and I guarded them and not one of them perished but the son of perdition, so that the Scripture would be fulfilled....'”
Jesus makes intercession for only believers, Paul then finishes his remarks in verse 6, “mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, (v.6)who gave Himself as a ransom for all, the testimony given at the proper time.” Who are the all of verse six? They're the ones that Paul was just talking about, they're “all” those whom Jesus is making intercession for. Unless, we dare make the argument that Jesus died for everybody on earth, He is therefore interceding on behalf of all those who have ever existed, hence God is failing at His own intercession every time a person rejects His work by their all-power free will, therefore not in control, therefore can we truly call Him God? There is no way we could understand 1 Tim 2 this way otherwise, this would then completely contradict the whole argument of Hebrews 7-10.
o when we look at 1 Timothy 2 and Titus 2:11, we can recognize that “all men” has merely a generic significance not specific. In these two passages especially it would be pleading to assert that Paul actually had a specific people in mind in these passages. Unless you want to claim universalism, but that is another issue entirely. Christ's death and intercession are for those whom the Father has given him, this is echoed earlier in John's Gospel, in John 6:37-39 "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out. 'For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. 'This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day...” Christ's atonement is perfect, His salvation is perfect, His intercession is perfect and as John seventeen states, it is for His glory!
If one is going to argue that Paul is claiming in 1 Timothy 2:5-6 that Jesus paid a ransom for every individual on the planet 's sins, past, present, and future, then no one will be in hell, for what sins would they have to pay for? A universal atonement leads to a universal salvation.
Therefore in conclusion, the non-Calvinist is not being honest to the theme of Scripture when he isolates one text in order to proof-text his own pet traditions. Jesus is savior and He will save His bride, He will save her perfectly (Romans 8:38-39), He will then Sanctify her, Purify her, then ultimately glorify her, and in this golden chain of redemption (Romans 8:27-30) God alone will be truly glorified, hence we can say with the early Reformers, “Soli Deo Gloria”.

